Class X - Social Science Practice Paper - 4

Subject: Social Science

Class X

Time Allowed: 3 hours

Max. Marks: 80

General Instructions:

i. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.

ii. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.

iii. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words. iv. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words

v. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.

vi. Section-E – Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4 marks each.

vii. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.

ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION-A

Multiple Choice Questions (Q 1 to 20)

1. Which of the following are perfectly matched:

(a) A and C

(b) Only B

2. In the above picture of Sorrien’s utopian vision, the saints, angle and Christ symbolise-

(a) Equality among people

(b) Fraternity among nations

(d) Resentment against nations

3. Match the following items given in column I with those in column II.

Select the correct option :

(a) A –> 1, B –> 2, C –> 3, D –> 4

(b) A –> 4, B –> 1, C –> 2, D –> 3

(d) A –> 3, B –> 4, C –> 1, D –> 2

4. Arrange the following events in the ascending year of their occurrence

1. Britain, exporting iron and steel worth about $77 million.

2. Demand for iron and steel increased rapidly with the expansion of railway in England.

3. Britain was importing 2.5 million pounds of raw cotton to feed its cotton industry.

4. Britain import of raw cotton soared to 22 million pounds.

Option:

(a) 2, 4, 3, 1

(b) 3, 4, 2, 1

(d) 2, 3, 1, 4

5. Which of the following is not a physical factor to determine land use?

(a) climate condition

(b) soil type

(d) population density

6. Observe the following picture carefully and choose the correct answer-

(a) It shows the state wise production of manganese in year 2016-17.

(b) It shows the state wise production of iron ore in year 2016-17.

(d) It shows the state wise production of electricity year in the 2016-17.

7. Complete the following table with correct information

Choose correct option:

(a) A – Gujarat, B – Narmada

(b) A – Punjab, B – Mahanadi

(d) A – Telangana, B – Krishna

8. Which of the options best signifies this cartoon-

(a) Showing the fine German engineering.

(b) Problems of running the Germany’s grand coalition Government that includes the two major parties of the country.

(d) How smoothly the German Government is running.

9. Identify the Country-

• Is a small country in Europe.

• Shares borders with France, Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.

• The government divided the powers equally between Dutch and French speaking populations.

• Power sharing is also seen in political parties.

Select the appropriate option from the following.

(a) Germany

(b) Belgium

(d) India

10. Which of the following features are common to Indian and Belgian form of power sharing arrangements?

A. Power is shared among governments at different levels.

B. Power is shared among different organs of government.

C. Power is shared among different social groups.

D. Power is shared among different parties and takes the form of competition.

(a) A, B, C, D

(b) B, C and D

(d) A, C and D

11. Assertion: In 15the religious reformer Martin Luther wrote Ninety-Five Theses criticising many of the practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church.

Reason: This led to a division within the Church and to the beginning of the Protestant Reformation.

(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.

(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.

(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

12. Assertion (A): Federations that are formed by ‘holding together’ do not give equal power to its constituent units.

Reason (R): Some states are granted special powers.

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(d) A is false but R is true.

13. Which of the following is incorrect regarding a federal government?

(a) Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country.

(b) Federation has only one level of government.

(c) One is the government for the entire country that is usually responsible for a few subjects of common national interest.

(d) The others are governments at the level of provinces or states that look after much of the day-to-day administering of their state.

14. How many countries of the world have democratic set-up of government?

(a) More than hundred countries

(b) Less than hundred countries

(d) More than fifty countries

15. Which one of the following is not a developmental goal for the landless rural labourers?

(a) More days of work and better wages.

(b) Local school is able to provide quality education for their children.

(d) They cannot become leaders in the village.

16. Following table shows the workers in different sectors (in millions)

What is the percentage of people in organised sector?

(a) 8.4%

(b) 9.6%

(d) 10%

17. Read the information given below and select the correct option:

A study in Ahmedabad found that out of 15,00,000 workers in the city, 11,00,000 worked in the unorganised sector. The total income of the city in this year (1997-1998) was ₹ 60,000 million. Out of this `32,000 million was generated in the organised section.

The number of workers in organised sector is

(a) 4,00,000

(b) 5,00000

(d) 39,000

18. Consider the following statements regarding use of money and identify the incorrect one from the following:

(a) The use of money spans a very large part of our everyday life.

(b) When the two parties have to agree to sell and buy each other’s commodities is called double coincidence of wants.

(d) The other form in which people hold money is as promissory note with banks.

19. Which of the following statements is correct with regards to India?

(a) Tertiary sector contributes the maximum to GDP.

(b) India is basically a socialist economy.

(d) None of the above

20. Which of the following is not applicable for a worker, who works in the organised sector?

(a) She gets a regular salary at the end of the month.

(b) She is not paid for leave.

(d) She got an appointment letter stating the terms and conditions of work when she joined this work.

SECTION-B

Very Short Answer Question (Q 21 to 24)

21. State the basic and main objectives of New Economic Policy.

Which factors were responsible for price rise of food grains in Britain in late nineteenth century was/ were?

22. Efficient means of transport are pre-requisites for fast development of the country.” Support the statement with examples.

23. “The assertion of social diversities in a democratic country is very normal and can be healthy.” Justify the statement with arguments.

24. Why do banks and cooperative societies need to lend more? Explain.

SECTION-C

Short Answer Based Question (Q 25 to 29)

25. Why did Gandhiji start Non-Cooperation Movement? Explain.

How did the Non-Cooperation Movement unfold in the cities and towns of India?

26. How had the printing press created a new culture of reading in Europe? Explain with examples.

27. Explain with examples, how do industries give boost to the agriculture sector.

28. State any three important features of Federalism.

29. “Tertiary sector activities help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.” Evaluate the statement.

SECTION-D

Long Answer Based Question (Q 30 to 33)

30. Describe the impact of the First World war on Indian industries.

Describe any three major problems faced by Indian cotton weavers in nineteenth century.

31. Name the two most important cereal crops grown in India. Describe the conditions required to grow these two crops.

Give reasons for increasing use of fertilisers in farming.

32. Suggest and explain any five ways to reform Political Parties in India.

What are the characteristics of a political party?

33. “The impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Explain with examples.

OR Describe the role of technology in promoting globalisation process.

SECTION-E

Case Based Question (Q 34 to 36)

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

Oceanic tides can be used to generate electricity. Floodgate dams are built across inlets. During high tide water flows into the inlet and gets trapped when the gate is closed. After the tide falls outside the flood gate, the water retained by the floodgate flows back to the sea via a pipe that carries it through a power-generating turbine. Shrubs, farm waste, animal and human waste are used to produce biogas for domestic consumption in rural areas. Decomposition of organic matter yields gas, which has higher thermal efficiency in comparison to kerosene, dung cake and charcoal. Biogas plants are set up at municipal, cooperative and individual levels. The plants using cattle dung are known as ‘Gobar gas plants’ in rural India. Nuclear or Atomic Energy is obtained by altering the structure of atoms. When such an alteration is made, much energy is released iri the form of heat and this is used to generate electric power. Uranium and Thorium, which are available in Jharkhand and the Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan are used for generating atomic or nuclear power. The Monazite sands of Kerala is also rich in Thorium.

Question:

1. What will generate by the oceanic tides?

2. What do Gobar Gas plants operated?

3. How atomic energy is obtained?

35. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:

Source A– Dignity and Freedom of the Citizens

Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings. Often conflicts arise among individuals because some feel that they are not treated with due respect. The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy. Democracies throughout the world have recognised this, at least in principle. This has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies. Source B– Non-democratic Regimes Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings. Non-democratic regimes often turn a blind eye to or suppress internal social differences. Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes. It is necessary to understand that democracy is not simply rule by majority opinion. Source C– Strength of Democracy Whenever possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making that affects them all. Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity. There are instances still of caste-based inequalities and atrocities, but these lack the moral and legal foundations. Perhaps it is the recognition that makes ordinary citizens value their democratic rights.

Question:

1. What are the basis of democracy?

2. Why democracy is considered as the superior form of government?

3. How does the Indian democracy strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes?

36. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:

Besides seeking more income, one way or the other, people also seek things like equal treatment, freedom, security, and respect of others. They resent discrimination. All these are important goals. In fact, in some cases, these may be more important than more income or more consumption because material goods are not all that you need to live. Money or material things that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our life depends. But the quality of our life also depends on non-material things mentioned above. If it is not obvious to you, then just think of the role of your friends in your life. You may desire their friendship. Similarly, there are many things that are not easily measured but they mean a lot to our lives. These are often ignored.

For development, people look at a mix of goals. It is true that if women are engaged in paid work, their dignity in the household and society increases. However, it is also the case that if there is respect for women there would be more sharing of housework and a greater acceptance of women working outside. A safe and secure environment may allow more women to take up a variety of jobs or run a business. Hence, the developmental goals that people have are not only about better income but also about other important things in life.

Question:

1. What are the things other than income which people seek for living?

2. Write any two developmental goals of middle-class woman.

3. What is the role of other important things than income, in life?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b)

37. (a) Two places A and B have been marked on the given outline map of India.

Identify them and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.

(A) The place where Indian National Congress session was held in December 1920.

(B) The place where Salt Law was broken by Mahatma Gandhi.

(b) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable Symbols:

(i) Paradwip-Major Seaport

(ii) Noida-Software Technology Park

(iii) Salem-Iron and Steel industry

(iv) Kalpakkam-Nuclear Power Plant

Class X – Social Science Practice Paper – 4